Is executing juvenile offenders ever right? This is a separate question to whether the death penalty is ever right, I think; does the government have a greater obligation to give juvenlies a second chance than it does to extend the same to adults? If the government structures its laws around the idea that minors and children cannot be held to the same expectations of impulse control and decisonmaking skills that society expects of adults, then yes. A government that does not recognize a minor as a full adult cannot justly punish a minor when she fails to act with the good judgment required of a full adult.
Some critics might contend that 17 and 18 years of age are not meaningfully different in terms of developmental ability. That might be true, and surely it varies among people. However, once the government has decided that 18 years of age is a meaningful proxy for good decisionmaking and sufficient life experience, the government is bound by that proxy. 17 is different than 18, even when it's not, because the government says so. Therefore the government can't justly expect a certain level of responsibility from 17 year olds in all but one context, when that single outlier context is the one in which the government intrudes upon the very life of that person. It is impermissible for the government's inconsistency to result in the ultimate imposition of the state upon the citizen.
This line of analysis might also be meaningful in a women's right context, especially in a legal system that singles women out as dependents of men. In Iran several laws require that men act as providers and represetatives for women: women can't get a passport without their husbands' permission,
Iran executes more juveniles than any other country, even though it has joined the U.N. Convention on the Rights of the Child, which prohibits executing people whose crime was committed before their eighteenth birthday.
So let's turn to a free society, for comparison. In the US, we executed juvelines in 19 states until 2005. We executed those with mental impairments until 2002.
1 comment:
Thanks for the thought-provoking entry. Like you, setting aside for the moment whether the death penalty is ever right:
If I understand you correctly, I don't think I fully agree with your "gov't can't have it both ways" line of reasoning as pertains to women and the death penalty. I agree that the laws you mentioned "suggest that a woman can't take care of herself", thus placing women on a legal parallel with minors and the mentally impaired (ludicrous as that may be). But I think you go too far when you state that these laws prove that a woman is "inferior in every way... lacking self-control and the ability to function in the world."
Let's say a woman wants to get a passport. Her husband refuses to help her, and thus she fails. This woman cannot be held accountable for failure to get a passport, a right explicitly denied to her. She is not culpable for THAT "sin", the failure to obtain a passport.
But are women given the right to drive? If so, certainly they are culpable for vehicular manslaughter. If a woman drives negligently and runs someone over, she shouldn't be able to go to court and say, "But I am not culpable, because I am not allowed to get a passport or be a physician." A woman may be deemed capable to drive, thus subject to punishment for any abuses of that right, while simultaneously deemed incapable of obtaining a passport, thus excused for any failures in that realm.
So when you come to the death penalty, I don't think you can categorically exclude women from death-penalty-level culpability on the basis of passports etc, any more than you can exclude them from vehicular manslaughter. The laws in place merely suggest that they are not AS culpable as men.
So the question then becomes, "Are they SO 'diminished' that they are categorically exempt from the death penalty?" And this question seems open for debate.
As you mentioned, the U.S. made this determination for minors in 2005 and for the mentally impaired in 2002. But this determination may not have been correct - look to the Atkins v. Virginia dissent for arguments against. And even if it were the proper determination in the United States, based on the U.S. Constitution, this does not mean the same holding should be made in Iran.
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